bmathey
09-03-03, 03:45 PM
I did not want to highjack the feminism thread, but can someone explain the changed spelling of 'woman' to me. I figure the argument to change the spelling to 'womyn' must be that to use the suffix 'man' is inherently degrading / harmful to women. If this presumption is wrong please tell me.
That said I have 6 questions.
1). What the heck is the plural of 'womyn'?
2). If woman should be changed to womyn should female also be changed? If so what should it be changed to?
3). Why is there an objection to woman when 'wo' is not a definable prefix? The result then is that 'man' cannot be a definable suffix and as such loses its meaning?
4). Why the Y? (instead of some other letter, ie womin)
5). Why do people continue to use womyn. As the origions of langugae are verbal not written isn't it the pronunciation that counts and so long as the word is pronounced the same the impacts are still there?
6). Why do people continue to use womyn when it is very clearly a replacement for woman. Why not use a completly different word which people cannot mistake as containing a reference to the male gender?
Thanks for explaining this to me
brian mathey
That said I have 6 questions.
1). What the heck is the plural of 'womyn'?
2). If woman should be changed to womyn should female also be changed? If so what should it be changed to?
3). Why is there an objection to woman when 'wo' is not a definable prefix? The result then is that 'man' cannot be a definable suffix and as such loses its meaning?
4). Why the Y? (instead of some other letter, ie womin)
5). Why do people continue to use womyn. As the origions of langugae are verbal not written isn't it the pronunciation that counts and so long as the word is pronounced the same the impacts are still there?
6). Why do people continue to use womyn when it is very clearly a replacement for woman. Why not use a completly different word which people cannot mistake as containing a reference to the male gender?
Thanks for explaining this to me
brian mathey